I am having a hard time understanding the following question
Let $A$ be a ring and $I \subset \operatorname{nilrad}A$ an ideal; if $x \in A$ maps to an invertible element of $A/I$, prove that $x$ is invertible in $A$.
What does
$x$ maps to an invertible element of $A/I$
mean? This question originally has two parts. In the first part, we prove that if $a$ is a unit and $x$ in nilpotent, then $a+x$ is again a unit. I just could not understand the second part of the question.
‘$x+I$ is a unit in $A/I$’ means there exists $y\in A$ such that $xy\in 1+I$, i.e. there exists $i\in I$ such that $xy=1+i$. By the first question, since $i$ is nilpotent, $1+i$ is a unit, in other words, there exists an element $u\in A$ such that $$(1+i)u=1,\quad\text{or }\;(xy)u=x(yu)=1,$$ which shows $x$ is a unit, with inverse $yu$.