Let $K$ be a quadratic field, $O$ an order of $K$ (say with basis, $\{1,\tau$}). Is it true that the map $x\mapsto x\otimes 1$ induces an inclusion $O\to O\otimes_{\mathbb Z}\hat{\mathbb Z}$ ? (where $\hat{\mathbb Z}=\prod_p\mathbb Z_p$)
I tried to do it by hand but I got confused because I should use the construction of the tensor product, which is very complicated. All I get is that if $x=z_1+\tau z_2$ is in the kernel of this map then $1\otimes z_1+\tau\otimes z_2=0$ and I don't know how to continue.
This also suggested to me the following question: having a tensor product of modules/rings/algebras $A\otimes B$, under which assumptions do we have an inclusion of $A$ or $B$ in the tensor product?
This is true. It follows abstractly from the fact that $\mathcal{O}$, being torsion-free, is a flat module, and so tensoring with it preserves injections (here, the injection of $\mathbb{Z}$ into $\widehat{\mathbb{Z}}$). Explicitly, $\mathcal{O} \cong \mathbb{Z}^2$, so the inclusion of $\mathcal{O}$ into $\mathcal{O} \otimes \widehat{\mathbb{Z}}$ is just the inclusion $\mathbb{Z}^2 \to \widehat{\mathbb{Z}}^2$ on underlying abelian groups.
Generally, if $A$ and $B$ are $k$-algebras, then $A$ injects into $A \otimes_k B$ if both the unit map $k \to B$ is injective (automatic if $k$ is a field but not otherwise) and $A$ is flat over $k$.