$A$ is diagonalizable, if $A,B$ have then same eigenvalues, then $B$ is also diagonalizable

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Given $A_{n\times n},B_{n\times n} \in \mathbb R$ such that $A$ is diagonalizable then:

  1. if $A,B$ have then same eigenvalues, then $B$ is also diagonalizable over $ \mathbb R$.

  2. if $A,B$ have then same characteristic polynomial, then $B$ is also diagonalizable over $ \mathbb R$.

Those two state basically the same thing and I read that both of these are false, but how?

If both have the same eigenvalues, then why both of them don't have the same diagonal matrix $D$ such that $A= P^{-1} D P = B$ ?

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\begin{bmatrix} 1&1 \\ 0& 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} consider these two matrices.(Jordan Canonical form is the answer).

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Answer to your last question: because there are nontrivial Jordan canonical forms.