Given $A_{n\times n},B_{n\times n} \in \mathbb R$ such that $A$ is diagonalizable then:
if $A,B$ have then same eigenvalues, then $B$ is also diagonalizable over $ \mathbb R$.
if $A,B$ have then same characteristic polynomial, then $B$ is also diagonalizable over $ \mathbb R$.
Those two state basically the same thing and I read that both of these are false, but how?
If both have the same eigenvalues, then why both of them don't have the same diagonal matrix $D$ such that $A= P^{-1} D P = B$ ?
\begin{bmatrix} 1&1 \\ 0& 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} consider these two matrices.(Jordan Canonical form is the answer).