I am trying to produce an elementary proof of the following linear algebra proposition. I have an approach I have pursued, but so far cannot complete the proof. What would be a reasonable next step?
Proposition: Let V and W be non-zero vector spaces, and T be a surjective linear map of V onto W. Assume that property (1) holds:
for any subset S of V, we have that "TS spans W" implies "S spans V".
Prove that $T$ is injective.
Note that because $T$ is onto, the converse $(1)^C$ holds:
for any subset S of V, we have that "S spans V" implies "TS spans W".
My Attempt so far:
Let $X$ denote $V - \ker T$.
$TX$ is able to span $W$, because images of elements of the kernel are no use for spanning $W$. Then (1) tells us that $X$ spans $V$. Let us show that this leads to a trivial kernel, by contradiction.
Express $a$ using elements of $X$, where $a \neq 0$ but $Ta = 0$. $$a = \sum_{i=1}^k \alpha_i x_i.$$
In this expansion no $x_i$ belongs to $\ker T$, so each $Tx_i \neq 0$ and of course each $x_i \neq 0$. We can assume each $\alpha_i$ is non-zero, and also that the $x_i$ are $k \geq 2$ distinct vectors of $V$. Let us also assume that $\{x_1, \dots , x_k\}$ is a basis for a subspace $M$, in which $a$ is found. Then in the image space $TM$ we have
$$0 = \sum_{i=1}^k \alpha_i \, Tx_i,$$
although perhaps we have $Tx_j = Tx_l$ for $j \neq l$.
Remark: this is the point where I could use some help. I did try some more stuff, see below, but I am less hopeful about it. Yet another path I tried is this one: A property of a surjective linear transformation, to do with preserving sets of generators, preserving independence
Looking again at
$$a = \sum_{i=1}^k \alpha_i x_i,$$
we see that $x_k$ is in the span of $a, x_1, \dots , x_{k-1}.$ Therefore $\langle x_1, \dots , x_{k}\rangle=\langle a, x_1, \dots , x_{k-1}\rangle$, and then
$$TM=T\langle x_1, \dots , x_{k}\rangle =T\langle a, x_1, \dots , x_{k-1}\rangle,$$ from which we obtain $$TM=\langle Tx_1, \dots , Tx_{k}\rangle =\langle Tx_1, \dots , Tx_{k-1}\rangle .$$
How to approach a contradiction from here, I do not know.
Sketch/hint:
Suppose $T$ were not injective, so $Tv_1=Tv_2$ for some $v_1\not=v_2$. Equivalently (if we let $v=v_2-v_1$) there is some $v\not=0$ with $Tv=0$. There is a basis $B$ for $V$ with $v\in B$ (using that the set $\{v\}$ is linearly independent, and could be extended to a basis). Let $C=B\setminus\{v\}$ and let $S=\mathrm{span}(C)$. Notice that $S$ is a (proper) subspace of $V$ (with $v\not\in S$), and try to prove that $TS$ spans $W$ (in fact $TS=W$).
Verification:
Indeed take any $w\in W$ (with $w\not=0$, if such a $w$ exists), then $w=Tz$ for some $z\in V$. Since $B$ is a basis we have $z=a_1b_1+\dots+a_nb_n$ for some $n\ge1$, some coefficients $a_i$, and some $b_i\in B$, $1\le i\le n$. If $v$ is not among the $b_i$ then we are done. If $v=b_j$ for some $j$ with $1\le j\le n$ then let $y=z-a_jb_j=$
$=a_1b_1+\dots+a_{j-1}b_{j-1}+a_{j+1}b_{j+1}+\dots+a_nb_n$. Then $y\in S$ and $Ty=Tz=w$.
(Note we need not assume that the spaces involved are finite-dimensional. In a variation of the proof, we could have taken $S=C$, instead of $S=\mathrm{span}(C)$.)