Suppose $B_1=\{v_1,v_2,...,v_n\}$ is a basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$, and $M$ is an $n*n$ matrix. Prove that $B_2=\{Mv_1,Mv_2,...,Mv_n\}$ is also a basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$ if and only if $M$ is invertible.
Following is what I have so far:
Assume $B_2$ is basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$.
Then, $B_2$ is a set of linearly independent vectors, and $B_2$ spans $\mathbb{R}^n$.
Since $B_1$ is also a basis of $\mathbb{R}^n$, then any element(vector) of $B_2$ is a linear combination of elements(vectors) of $B_1$ and vice-versa.
$Mv_1= a_{11}v_1+a_{21}v_2+...+a_{n1}v_n$ , where $a_{11},a_{21},...,a_{n1}\in \mathbb{R}$
Likewise, $Mv_2= a_{12}v_1+a_{22}v_2+...+a_{n2}v_n$ , where $a_{12},a_{22},...,a_{n2}\in \mathbb{R}$
$\begin{bmatrix}Mv_1&Mv_2&...&Mv_n\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}v_1&v_2&...&v_n\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a_{11}&a_{12}&...&a_{1n}\\a_{21}&a_{22}&...&a_{2n}\\ \vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots\\a_{n1}&a_{n2}&...&a_{nn}\end{bmatrix}$
Not sure what to do next ...
Using the determinant is a very elegant solution. But if you can't use the determinant, you still can prove it.
Let us denote $\tilde{B_1}=[v_1~v_2~\ldots~v_n]$ and $\tilde{B}_2=[Mv_1~Mv_2~\ldots~Mv_n]$. Then your last equation says $\tilde B_2=\tilde B_1M$.
Hints:
To finish $B_2$ basis implies $M$ invertible:
Since $B_2$ is a basis, the matrix $\tilde B_2$ is invertible. On the RHS the matrix $\tilde B_1$ is invertible, because $B_1$ is a basis.
Therefore, you can manipulate the equation to get $M=\ldots$, where $\ldots$ is invertible, hence $M$ is invertible.
For $M$ invertible implies $B_2$ basis:
Suppose $B_2$ is not a basis, then you can find a nontrivial linear combintion of $B_2$ which is $0$. You can rewrite the equation and get a nontrivial solution of $Mx=0$. Hence $M$ is not invertible and we are done.