Let $f\in C^0(\mathbb R^2, \mathbb R)$, so that there exists an $M>0 \in \mathbb R$ with $f(x,y) \geq M$ for all $(x,y)\in\mathbb R^2$.
Does it follow for any $g \in C^0(\mathbb R,\mathbb R)$ that there exsists a unique $ h \in C^0(\mathbb R,\mathbb R)$ so that $$\int_0^{h(a)} f(a,x)\,\text{d}x=g(a)$$ for all $a\in\mathbb R$?
Existence and unicity have been prooved in comments, let's prove continuity.
Take $a\in \mathbf R$ and assume $h(a) \neq 0$. The function $f$ is continuous on $\mathbf R^2$ and thus uniformly continuous on the compact set $K=[a-1;a+1]\times [0;h(a)]$. This means that for every $\varepsilon>0$ there exists some $1>\delta>0$ such that $|a-b|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(a,x)-f(b,x)|<\varepsilon/|h(a)|$ for every $x$ in $[0;h(a)]$ and thus
$$|a-b|<\delta \Rightarrow \left|\int_0^{h(a)}f(a,x)dx-\int_0^{h(a)}f(b,x)dx\right|<\varepsilon.$$
Now take $\delta$ to be small enough so that $|g(a)-g(b)|<\varepsilon$ and notice that
$$|g(a)-g(b)|=\left|\int_0^{h(a)}f(a,x)dx-\int_0^{h(b)}f(b,x)dx\right|=\left|\int_0^{h(a)}f(a,x)dx-\int_0^{h(a)}f(b,x)dx -\int_{h(a)}^{h(b)}f(b,x)dx\right|.$$
Since $f\geq M>0$ everywhere we get that $$|h(a)-h(b)|> 2\varepsilon/M \Rightarrow \left|\int_{h(a)}^{h(b)}f(b,x)dx \right|>2\varepsilon$$ which in turn would imply $|g(a)-g(b)|>2\varepsilon-\varepsilon=\varepsilon$, contradicting the assumption made earlier. So the only possibility is that $|h(a)-h(b)|<2\varepsilon/M$ and thus $h$ is continuous. The case $h(a)=0$ is treated in the exacte same way except that we don't have to bound the term $\left|\int_0^{h(a)}f(a,x)dx-\int_0^{h(a)}f(b,x)dx\right|$ since it's equal to $0$.