Suppose I have $2$ functions $\phi$ and $\psi$ and a $C^1$ function $F$ such that $F(\phi , \psi) = 0$
I know that we can write $\phi$ as a function of $\psi$ around a point if $F_\phi \neq 0 $ at that point. (Please mention some conditions I missed, if any.)
I am not sure I am applying the theorem correctly, so it would be helpful if someone can give a comprehensive example about this with some particular $\phi$ and $\psi$.
If $\partial_1 F(x_0,y_0)\ne 0$ (also written as $\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}(x_0,y_0)\ne 0$), then exists $f$ in a nhood of $y_0$ s.t. $$F(f(y),y) = 0$$ and we say that $x = f(y)$. Introducing $\phi$, $\psi$, this means that if $$F(\phi(t),\psi(t)) = 0,$$then $$\phi(t) = f(\psi(t)).$$