I study a paper about finite $p$-groups and I could not understand the following property which is used in it. Any comment or answer will be appreciated!
Let $G$ be a finite non-abelian $p$-group and $x\in G$. If $g\in N_G(\langle x\rangle)$, then $[x,g]\in \langle x^p\rangle$.
( Note that $N_G(\langle x\rangle)=\{g\in G | g^{-1}\langle x\rangle g=\langle x\rangle\}$ and $[x,g]=x^{-1}g^{-1}xg$).
Many thank's.
I offer a slightly different proof of this fact.
Let $G$ be a $p$-group. Let $x,g\in G$ and $g^{-1}xg=x^\alpha$, $\alpha$ is a positive integer not divisible by $p$.
If the order of $g$ is $p^k$, then $$ x=g^{-p^k}xg^{p^k}=x^{\alpha^{p^k}}. $$ It follows that $\alpha^{p^k}\equiv1\pmod p$. On the other hand, due to Fermat's little theorem, we have $\alpha^{p^k}\equiv\alpha\pmod p$. Therefore, $\alpha\equiv1\pmod p$ and hence. $$ [x,g]=x^{-1}\cdot g^{-1}xg=x^{-1}x^\alpha=x^{\alpha-1}\in\langle x^p\rangle. $$