Question: For every polynomial $P(x)$ of degree at n we have $$\sum_{i=0}^{n+1}(-1)^i\binom{n+1}{i}P(i)=0$$
Well I was inducting on degree of the polynomial, for $n=0$ its true and I got a bit confused in the inductive step, actually I cant figure the inductive step.
Is this property (if true) a famous one?
Thank you for your help.
Here is one approach:
Let $Lp = \sum_{k=0}^{n+1} \binom{n+1}{k} (-1)^k p(k)$. Note that $L$ is linear, so if we can establish that $L(x \mapsto x^m) = 0$ (for $m =0,...,n$), then the result follows.
Let $\phi(x) = (1-x)^{n+1}$ and note that $\phi^{(m)}(1) = 0$ for $m=0,...,n$.
Since $\phi^{(m)}(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n+1} \binom{n+1}{k} (-1)^k k(k-1)\cdots(k-m+1)x^{k-m}$, we see that $L(x \mapsto x(x-1)\cdots(x-m+1)) = \phi^{(m)}(1) = 0$ (for $m =0,...,n$).
Since we can write $x(x-1)\cdots(x-m+1) = x^m + \text{ terms in }1,x,...,x^{m-1} $, we have the desired result.