A puzzling derivation about the expectation of [$\hat{X}$, $\hat{H}$]

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a free particle of mass $m$, with Hamiltonian

$\hat{H} = \frac {\hat{P}^2} {2m}$,

where $\hat{P} = -i \hbar \frac{\partial} {\partial x}$.

The commutative relation is given by

$[\hat{X}, \hat{H}] = \frac {i\hbar} {m} \hat{P}$ (1)

In the common eigen-state of $\hat{H}$ and $\hat{P}$, $|e, p>$, can wo do the following?

$\lt e, p| [\hat{X}$, $\hat{H}] |e, p\gt$

$ = \lt e, p|\hat{X} (\hat{H}|e, p\gt) - (\lt e, p|\hat{H}) \hat{X}|e, p\gt $

$ = \lt e, p|\hat{X} (e|e, p\gt) - (\lt e, p|e) \hat{X}|e, p\gt $

$ = e( \lt e, p|\hat{X}|e, p\gt - \lt e, p|\hat{X}|e, p\gt ) $

$ = 0 $

Since the $\hat{H}$ is Hermitian, the above derivation doesn't seem to show any flaw. Given the commutative relation, Eq (1), we know the result is wrong. What's wrong with the above derivation?