The following is a question about Sierpiński's paper "Une démonstration du théorème sur la structure des ensembles de points", (link):
We call a set dense-in-itself if it does not contain any isolated points. An isolated point $x$ is a point for which a neighbourhood exists that does not contain points of the set other than $x$.
Let $C$ be a subset of $\mathbb R$ such that it does not contain any dense-in-itself subsets. Using an enumeration of the countable basis consisting of the balls $B(q,\frac{1}{n})$ we can show (without using the axiom of choice) that there exists a function $\varphi$ that picks a point $p$ in $C$. We can define $\varphi$ by observing that there is at least one ball that only contains one point of $C$. Define $\varphi$ to return the first point in the enumeration of the basic calls such that the ball contains no other points of $C$.
$\varphi$ is a well-defined function on all subsets of $C$.
It seems to me that $\varphi$ therefore is a choice function for $C$ and furthermore that it yields a enumeration of $C$.
In the paper he sets $p_0 = \varphi (C)$ and then goes on to define families $\mathcal K$ of subsets of $C$ with the properties
(i) $\{p_0\} \in \mathcal K$
(ii) if $A_i$ in $\mathcal K$ then $\bigcup_i A_i \in \mathcal K$
(iii) if $E \subsetneq C$ is in $\mathcal K$ then $E \cup \varphi (C \setminus E)$ is also in $\mathcal K$.
He uses $\mathcal K$ to give a proof that $C$ with the above property is enumerable without using the axiom of choice and without using transfinite induction.
My question is: Does effective enumerability of $C$ not immediately follow from the fact that $\varphi$ is a choice function for $C$ (via transfinite induction)?
I suspect I might be using some form of choice in my thoughts without being aware of it. Thanks for your help.
My first attempt was completely incorrect. Here is an outline of the proof, missing all of the details, and changing some notations.
Letting $p_0 = \varphi ( C )$, consider the smallest family $\mathcal{K}_0$ of subsets of $C$ satisfying the following:
Show that $\mathcal{K}_0$ has the additional property that for any $E , G \in \mathcal{K}_0$ either $E \subseteq G$ or $G \subseteq E$ holds.
Picking $p \neq p_0 \in C$ consider $E_p = \bigcup \{ E \in \mathcal{K}_0 : p \notin E \}$; note that $E_p \neq \emptyset$ and $E_p \in \mathcal{K}_0$.
Note that $\varphi ( C \setminus E_p ) = p$ for all $p \neq p_0$ in $C$.
Addendum: The following would not have been possible without the comments made by Dave L. Renfro, below. (Of course, any errors or mis-statements contained below are solely my fault.)
In his Cardinal and Ordinal Numbers, Sierpiński says the following:
What is meant here is that effective equivalence is a stronger notion than equivalence, where one must only demonstrate that two sets are in 1-1 correspondence without exhibiting any particular correspondence. (I guess this can be read somewhat intuitionistically, but also seems to parallel modern notions.)
More contemporaneous with the paper in question, in Les exemples effectifs et l'axiome du choix [Fund.Math., Tom.2 (1921), 112-118, link] Sierpiński gives the following definition.
So the effectiveness in the paper linked in the OP is only about exhibiting a particular 1-1 correspondence with the natural numbers.