Let $p(z)$ be a polynomial of degree $n\ge 2$. Is it true that, there is a $R>0$ such that $$\int\limits_{|z|=R}{\frac{1}{p(z)}dz}=0?$$
My attempt is: there is a $R>0$ such that $|p(z)|\ge \frac{1}{2}|a_n||z|^n$, for $|z|\ge R$, where $p(z)=a_0+a_1z+\dotsm+a_nz^n$. Thus $\frac{1}{p(z)}$ is defined and continuous on $\Bbb C\setminus B(0,R)=\{z:|z|\ge R\}$. Also $\frac{1}{p(z)}$ is bounded by $\frac{2}{|a_n|R^n}$ on $|z|=R$. So I have $$\left|\int\limits_{|z|=R}{\frac{1}{p(z)}dz}\right|\le \frac{4\pi}{|a_n|R^{n-1}}.$$ and this tends to zero as $R\to\infty$.
But how to find a $R$ so that the integral vanishes ? Is it possible? Need help.
Let $r>0$ be so large that all roots of $p(z)$ lie within the disc $|z| < r$. Then for every $R \geqslant r$ we have
$$\int \limits_{|z| = R} \frac{1}{p(z)} \, \mathrm{d} z = \int \limits_{|z| = r} \frac{1}{p(z)} \, \mathrm{d} z.$$
But the left side tends to $0$ as $R \to \infty$, so
$$\int \limits_{|z| = r} \frac{1}{p(z)} \, \mathrm{d} z = 0$$
itself.