I'm reading this paper and considering the following notations/definitions:
Let $G$ be a finite group, $V,W$ finite dimensional vector spaces and consider two maps $\phi:V \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, $\Phi:V \rightarrow W$.
Now we define:
$$\begin{align} \psi(X) &:= \frac{1}{|G|}\sum_{g \in G}\phi(g^{-1} \cdot X) \\ \Psi(X) &:= \frac{1}{|G|}\sum_{g \in G}g \cdot \Phi(g^{-1} \cdot X), \end{align}$$
where $\cdot$ denotes a group action, $X \subset V$.
First question:
Why do we take the inverse of $g$ to act on the set $X$?
As far as I'm concerned (but not 100% sure), this should be arbitrary, because
if $x \mapsto gx$ is a left action, then $x \mapsto xg^{-1}$ is a right action.
if $x \mapsto xg$ is a right action, then $x \mapsto g^{-1}x$ is a left action.
So for example, I could modify the above definitions saying that $\phi(g \cdot X)$ is the left action, while $\phi(X\cdot g^{-1})$ would be the right one.
Second Question:
Given that we assume $g^{-1}$ for the left action, why do we need to take $g$ to act on the output $\Phi(\cdot)$?
To answer your questions, for $\psi(X)$, it makes no difference whether you write $g \cdot X$ or $g^{-1} \cdot X$, because we are summing over all $g \in G$.
For the second question, you could replace $g \cdot \Phi(g^{-1} \cdot x)$ by $g^{-1} \cdot \Phi(g \cdot x)$ without affecting the result of the summation, but I am guessing that the author definitely wants to have one $g$ and one $g^{-1}$, just as we do when we define conjugation in a group.