Is the function $f(x) = \frac{x^2}{x}$ defined for every $x \in \mathbb R$, or only defined on $\mathbb R \setminus \{0 \}$?
Background:
Say we are given $P(x) = x^2 - 4x + 3$ and $Q(x) = (x - 1)(2x + 3) - (2x - 2)(3x + 5)$. The question asks to factorize both expressions and then consider the function: $F(x) = \frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}$. Then, the question asks to find the domain of definition of $F(x)$.
I teach my students that $F$ is defined for $Q(x) \neq 0$.
However, shouldn't one try to simplify $F(x)$ before one finds the domain of definition?
I can write for instance:
$$F(x) = \frac{P(x)(x - 10)}{Q(x)(x - 10)}$$
Should this writing change the domain of definition of $F$?
Then, I suppose that we should try to simplify $F$ before determining its domain of definition.
Can someone correct/validate my supposition?
Thank you.
The function $f(x)$ that we take to be the evaluation of the expression $x^2/x$ has a maximum domain $\mathbb{R}\setminus \{0\}$ in the reals.
It is clear to see that everywhere but at $x=0$ we have $f(x) = x$, and there is a hole left at $x=0$. In this circumstance, we can fill in the hole to achieve a continuous function by defining a new function: $$F(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cc} f(x) & x\neq 0\\ 0 & x=0 \end{array}\right.$$
This function agrees with $f$ over $f$'s domain, but it also fills in the gap left by $f$ in such a way that it is a continuous function.
Note that $F(x)$ is the only continuous function on $\mathbb{R}$ that agrees with $f$ on $\mathbb{R}\setminus \{ 0\}$. Thus it is often convention to write $f(x) = F(x)$, though this is an abuse of notation since they technically have different domains.