I am trying to understand the proof, but am stuck at the last line. Why does the first equality of the picture below holds? The codomain of $f$ is $R^k$, not some the set of nonnegative numbers. Is there something I am missing? I need hekp.
2026-02-22 17:55:49.1771782949
A question about the proof of Extension Lemma for Smooth functions
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