I am having trouble understanding the following argument from Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds:
The above argument is clear.
But I cannot figure out how for any fixed $k,$ $$\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{|\sin(a+h)-\sin a-(\cos a).h|}{|(h,k)|}=0$$ implies that $$\lim_{(h,k)\to0}\dfrac{|\sin(a+h)-\sin a-(\cos a).h|}{|(h,k)|}=0.$$ Please help!
Added: Please see if it is correct: for $\epsilon>0~\exists~\delta>0$ such that $\frac{|\sin(a+h)−\sin(a)−\cos(a)h|}{|(h,k)|}<\epsilon$ for $|h|<\delta$ ($k$ is fixed). Then $|(h,k)|<\delta\implies|h|<\delta\implies\frac{|\sin(a+h)−\sin(a)−\cos(a)h|}{|(h,k)|}<\epsilon.$

We have $|(h,k)|\ge |h|$, then $$ 0\le\left|\frac{f(h)}{(h,k)}\right|=\left|\frac{f(h)}{h}\frac{h}{(h,k)}\right|\le \left|\frac{f(h)}{h}\right|. $$ Now $(h,k)\to 0$ $\Rightarrow$ $h\to 0$. What can you say about the limit?