Rudin says that (2) can be rewritten as (4), as seen below. However, both integrands in (2) respectively depend on $x$ and $y$, which implies that (2) could not be rewritten as (4). Is there any problem in my understanding? Thanks a lot.
2026-03-25 19:10:25.1774465825
A question of why these integrands can be taken out of the integrals.
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