As I learnt in another question that I posted here, the result stated here is the universal property of the direct sum of abelian groups written for finitely many abelian groups. Here is what I still don't get. I know that the direct sum of abelian groups is not the same as the direct sum of not necessarily abelian groups. I also know that the direct sum of finitely many abelian groups is the same as their direct product. Is this the reason why the $G_1, G_2, ..., G_n$ groups mentioned there are not taken to be abelian? Do we need them to be abelian only if we aren't working with finitely many groups?
2026-03-27 13:48:36.1774619316
A question on the universal property of the direct sum of abelian groups
165 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ABSTRACT-ALGEBRA
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