I am having trouble understanding why the sequence of functions defined by $$ f_n(x) = \min(1-\frac{1}{n}, x)$$ on $(0, 1)$ does satisfy the condition of pointwise but not uniform convergence on $(0, 1)$.
Any help would be appreciated thanks!
2026-04-11 19:51:45.1775937105
A sequence of functions that converges pointwise on $(0, 1)$ but not uniformly
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