I would like to check if my reasoning in the following problem is correct (one-way, that is), and if there are any other ways to see the following result:
Let $\{ x_n \}$ be a sequence in $l^p$ (so $\{x_n\}$ is a sequence whose elements are sequences) . Then, $\displaystyle\sup_n ||x_n|| < \infty$ and $x_n(j) \to 0$ for all $j \geq 1$, if and only if for all $y \in l^q$, $\displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^\infty x_n(j)y(j) \to 0$, where $p+q=pq$, $1< p,q < \infty$.
Attempt:
I attempted to the "only if" part by trying to use a special value of $y$, namely $\{ x_n^{\frac{p}{q}}\}$, which gives: $$ \displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^\infty x_n(j)y(j) \to 0 \implies \displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^\infty \big(x_n(j)\big)^{1+p/q} \to 0 \implies \displaystyle\sum_{j=1}^\infty \big(x_n(j)\big)^p \to 0 \implies ||x_n|| \to 0 $$
Hence, as $||x_n||$ is a convergent sequence, $||x_n||$ is bounded. Furthermore, suppose that $j>0$ and $\epsilon>0$ fixed. Then, for this $\epsilon$, there exists $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $n > N \implies ||x_n|| < \epsilon$. But then, $||x_n|| < \epsilon \implies x_n(j) < \epsilon$. Hence,$x_n(j)\to 0$ for all $j$.
I know I have done something contentious above, but I can't figure out what it is (something to do with absolute value, maybe). I cannot get a headway on the reverse part either.
$\Rightarrow)$ Let $y\in \ell^q$. Then the map
$$z\mapsto \sum_jy(j)z(j)=\int_\mathbb{N}yz\ d\mu$$
(where $\mu$ is the counting measure) is well defined (Hölder's inequality) and continuous, by the dominated convergence theorem. In particular, if $x_n\to 0$ in $\ell^p$ (which is implied by your hypothesis), then $\int yx_n\ d\mu\to \int 0\ d\mu=0$.
$\Leftarrow)$ What you've written in your answer looks fine to me, since $|x(j)|\le \|x\|_p$.