If $f$ be a meromorphic function on the complex plane and $(1-|z|)|f(z)|$ $\longrightarrow$ $0$ as $|z|$ $\longrightarrow$ 1 then show that $f$ does not have any pole on the unit circle. This looks very simple but I somehow have not able to prove it rigorously. Thanks for any help.
2026-03-25 18:44:14.1774464254
A Simple Question about Poles
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Assume a pole at $z=1$ so that $f(z)=\dfrac{g(z)}{(1-z)^n}$ with $g(1)$ finite and nonzero.
Then
$$\lim_{z\to1}(1-|z|)\left|\frac{g(z)}{(1-z)^n}\right|=g(1)\lim_{z\to1}\left|\frac{1-|z|}{(1-z)^n}\right|\ne 0.$$
For example,
$$\lim_{\epsilon\to0}\left|\frac{1-|1+\epsilon|}{\epsilon^n}\right|\ne 0.$$