While evaluating $I$, I did the following-
$$\begin{align}I= \int_{0}^{1} \log \left(\dfrac{1+x}{1-x}\right) \dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{1-x^2}} \ \mathrm{d}x &= 2 \int_{0}^{1}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1} \dfrac{1}{x\sqrt{1-x^2}} \ \mathrm{d}x\\ &=2\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{x^{2n}}{(2n+1)\sqrt{1-x^2}} \ \mathrm{d}x \end{align}$$ Then I used the substitution $x \mapsto \sin \theta $.
$$\begin{align} \therefore I &=2\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \dfrac{\sin^{2n} {\theta}}{2n+1} \ \mathrm{d}\theta\\ &=\pi \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2(2n+1)} \end{align}$$ The last step is due to Wallis' formula.
However, I couldn't solve the last series. My question is that how do we prove that $$\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2(2n+1)}=\dfrac{\pi}{2} \ ?$$
Hint
For $|x| \leq 1$, $$\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2(2n+1)}x^{2n}=\frac 1x\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^2(2n+1)}x^{2n+1}=\frac{\sin ^{-1}(x)}{x}$$