Problem: Suppose that there is a function mapping $S$ onto $T$.
Show that $\operatorname{Card}(S)\ge\operatorname{Card}(T)$
Issue: I can't seem to find a reason why this follows. If $S$ maps $T$ then this guarantees that for any element in $T$ there is at least one element in $S$. Therefore, I keep coming up with the fact that $\operatorname{Card}(S)\le\operatorname{Card}(T)$. Am I missing something, or is there a typo on my study guide?
Thanks in advance.
You appear to be misunderstanding the meaning of "surjective (or onto) function."
A function from $A$ to $B$ is onto if, for every element $b\in B$, there is some $a\in A$ such that $f(a)=b$. So, for example, the map $0\mapsto 5, 1\mapsto 5$ is a surjection from $\{0, 1\}$ onto $\{5\}$.
Meanwhile there is no surjection from $\{5\}$ to $\{0, 1\}$ - we can send $5$ to $0$, or we can send $5$ to $1$, but we can't do both (functions are single-valued), and whichever of $0$ or $1$ we send $5$ to, the other will be "missed."