I read about the system of $n$ equations in the link below. I wonder how it behaves for growing $n$. Does it converge ?
http://math.eretrandre.org/tetrationforum/showthread.php?tid=889
Here it is explicit :
Consider the polynomial $f_n(x) = x^n + a_1 x^{(n-1)} + a_2 x^{(n-2)} + ...$
Now solve $f_n(x+1) = f_n(x)$ without solving for the $x^{(n-1)}$ term and with $f(0)=0$. See example below for clarification.
The idea seems to find a " periodic polynomial ".
Does this system of equations converge to a truncated Taylor series of a known periodic function such as sine ? Or even does it converge to a periodic function ? Or maybe it converges to a periodic function + a (fixed) polynomial of fixed degree ( indep of $n$ ) ? Or even a closed form ?
Im not sure how to solve this kind of problems. Matrices do not seem to help or do they ?
$$ **example** $$
Since there appears to be some confusion I give the example for $n=3$.
$f_3(x) = x^3 + a_1 x^{2} + a_2 x + a_3$
We solve $f_3(x+1) = (x+1)^3 + a_1 (x+1)^{2} + a_2 (x+1) + a_3 = f_3(x) = x^3 + a_1 x^{2} + a_2 x^{1} + a_3$
Thus we expand $f_3(x+1)$ :
$x^3 + (3+a_1) x^2 + (3+2 a_1+a_2) x + 1 + a_1 + a_2 + a_3$
Hence we get the set of equations :
$3+a_1 = a_1$
$3 + 2 a_1 + a_2 = a_2$
$1 + a_1 + a_2 + a_3 = a_3$
Now solving this set starting with $3+a_1 = a_1$ is not possible. We cannot solve these equations for all variables. So we solve the remaining equations : (for instance this way below)
$1 + a_1 + a_2 + a_3 = a_3$ => $1 + a_1 + a_2 = 0$ => $a_2 = -1 - a_1$ and $a_1 = - a_2 - 1$
Now we plug this into the other remaining equation ($3 + 2 a_1 + a_2 = a_2$) to get :
(first reduce) $3 + 2 a_1 + a_2 = a_2$ => $3 + 2 a_1 = 0$
plug in
$3 - 2 a_2 - 2 = 0$ => $1 - 2 a_2 = 0$ => $a_2 = 1/2$ and $a_1 = - 3/2$
So $f_3(x) = x^3 -3/2 x^{2} + 1/2 x $ ( the restriction $f(0) = 0$ forces the constant term $a_3$ to be $0$. )
I guess that clarifies alot.
I also wonder if there are (other) known systems of $n$ equations that converge to a Taylor series that is real analytic and real periodic as $n$ grows to infinity.
Well given that
$$ f(x+1) = f(x), $$
you get
$$ f(x) = f(x+k), $$
where $k$ is an integer. Let us consider
$$ g(x) = f(x) - f(0). $$
Then it is clear that
$$ g(k) = 0, $$
where $k$ is an integer. Whence
$$ g(x) = \prod_k \Big( x - k\Big), $$
so you cannot have a finity polynomial that satisfy $f(x+1) = f(x)$