A topological space $(X,\tau)$ is $T_{1}$ if and only if for every pair of distinc points $x,y$ $\in$ $X$, there exist $U$ $\in$ $\tau$ such that $x$ $\in$ $U$, and $y$ $\notin$ $U$ and $V$ $\in$ $\tau$ such that $y$ $\in$ $V$, and $x$ $\notin$ V.
if $\tau_{1}$ and $\tau_{2}$ are topologies on X. We say that $\tau_{1}$ is finer than $\tau_{2}$ if $\tau_{2} \subset \tau_{1}$.
But in this problem, I do not know how to start.
The following are all equivalent:
1 to 2: Let $X$ be $T_1$ and consider the set $\{x\}$ for some $x \in X$. Then for every $y \neq x$ we have (by $T_1$-ness) an open set $U_y$ such that $y \in U_y$ and $x \notin U_y$. Then $X\setminus \{x\} = \bigcup \{U_y : y \neq x\}$ which makes $X\setminus \{x\}$ open (as a union of open sets) and thus $\{x\}$ closed.
2 to 3: closed sets are closed under finite unions, and finite sets are finite unions of singleton sets.
3 to 4: obvious, as all non-empty open sets of the cofinal topology are of the form $X\setminus F$ where $F$ is finite (thus closed in $\tau$ by assumption) and so also open in $\tau$ (as the complement of a closed set of $\tau$).
4 to 1. Let $x \neq y$ be two points of $X$. Then $U = X\setminus\{y\}$ is open in the cofinal topology, so open in $\tau$ by the assumption, and $x \in U$, $y \notin U$. We can take $V= X\setminus\{x\}$ to get $y \in V, x \notin V$ as well.