Sorry if this is a daft question, but if we consider the set of rationals under the 'addition' operator we can form an Abelian Group.
I'm curious: in that situation, is the definition of addition (as given below) derived or axiomatic?
I ask as without knowing the multiplicative inverse of rationals, how can we derive the definition of addition? Moreover, shouldn't they be independent of one another?
The addition is defined. More precisely, if you define $\mathbb Q$ as the set of equivalence classes of $\mathbb{Z}\times(\mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\})$ with respect to the equivalence relation$$(a,b)\sim(c,d)\text{ if and only if }ad=bc,$$then you define$$\bigl[(a,b)\bigr]\times\bigl[(c,d)\bigr]=\bigl[(ad+bc,bd)\bigr].$$This only requires that you know how to multiply (and add) integers.