About a translation invariant operator with inverse Fourier transform.

Question

Let $T:L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)\to L^p(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ a operator with $T(u)=\mathcal{F}^{-1}(g(\xi)\hat{u})$ and $g:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ nonegative and rotationally invarian function. Then, Why $T$ is translation invariant operator? ($\mathcal{F}^{-1}$ is a inverse Fourier Transform)