Verifying that translation by $h$ in time is the same as modulating by $-h$ in frequency (Fourier Analysis)

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According to a time-frequency equivalency table in an undergraduate book on Harmonic Analysis, we have that:

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or, in equation form:

$$ \widehat{\tau_h f}(\xi) = M_{-h} \widehat{f}(\xi). $$

Problem. This doesn't seem true to me.

Attempt. Recall that in the context of Fourier Analysis, the Fourier Transform $\widehat{f}(\xi)$ satisfies

$$ \widehat{f}(\xi) = \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-2 \pi i \xi x} dx $$

Then

$$ M_{-h} \widehat{f}(\xi) = e^{2 \pi i (-h) \xi} \left( \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-2 \pi i x \xi} dx \right) = \int_{- \infty}^\infty f(x) e ^{-2 \pi i \xi (x + h)} dx $$

and

$$ \widehat{\tau_h f}(\xi) = \widehat{f(\xi - h)} = \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{- 2 \pi i x( \xi - h)} dx $$

so that

$$ \widehat{\tau_h f}(\xi) = \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{- 2 \pi i x( \xi - h)} dx \ne \int_{- \infty}^\infty f(x) e ^{-2 \pi i \xi (x + h)} dx = M_{-h} \widehat{f}(\xi). $$

What am I missing?


EDIT. I'm now also having trouble understanding part (c) of this table. That is, I'm having trouble understanding why

$$ \widehat{M_h}f(\xi) = \tau_h \widehat{f}(\xi) $$

since

\begin{align*} \widehat{M_hf}(\xi) &= \widehat{e^{2 \pi i h \xi}f}(\xi) \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{- 2 \pi i \xi x} e^{2 \pi i h \xi} f(x) dx \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{- 2 \pi i \xi(x-h)} f(x) dx \\ \end{align*}

and

$$ \tau_h \widehat{f}(\xi) = \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} e^{- 2 \pi i (\xi - h)x} f(x) dx $$

so that it seems that

$$ \widehat{M_h}f(\xi) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{- 2 \pi i \xi(x-h)} f(x) dx \ne \int_{- \infty}^{\infty} e^{- 2 \pi i (\xi - h)x} f(x) dx = \tau_h \widehat{f}(\xi)? $$

As far as I can tell, I'm not making any commutativity errors here as I was above.

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I think what you're missing is that translation and Fourier transform don't commute, namely $$\widehat{(\tau_hf)}(\xi)\neq(\tau_h \hat f)(\xi).$$

The notation $\widehat{(\tau_hf)}$ means that you should first translate the function $f$ and then take the Fourier transform. What you've done is first taken the Fourier transform and then translated it. The calculation should have gone $$\widehat{(\tau_h f)}(\xi)=\int f(x-h)e^{-2\pi\mathrm{i}\xi x}\mathrm dx=\int f(x)e^{-2\pi\mathrm i\xi(x+h)}\mathrm dx,$$ where for the last equality I used the change of variables $x\mapsto x+h$.