I am reading in a proof, but there's only one part that I do not understand
Theorem: Let $\Omega$ be an open subset of $\mathbb{C}$, let $z_1,z_2,\dots$ be a sequence of different points from $\Omega$ with no cluster point in $\Omega$, [...]
Proof: Since the sequence $\{z_k\}$ does not cluster in $\Omega$, there exist $a\in \Omega$ and $r>0$ such that $B(a,r)$ does not intersect the set $\{z_k\}$. [...]
The definition of a cluster point is as follows
Let $A\subseteq \mathbb{C}$, a point $a\in\mathbb{C}$ is called an cluster point of $A$ if $(B(a,r)\cap A)\setminus \{a\}\neq \emptyset$ for all $r>0$.
So, saying that $A$ has no cluster points, it must mean, by negating this definition that
$$\forall a\in \mathbb{C}\exists r>0:(B(a,r)\cap A)\setminus \{a\}= \emptyset \tag{1}$$
I do not understand why the proof is true, and/or what is the connection between this and $(1)$?
Since $\Omega$ is open in $\mathbb{C}$, it's uncountable, and hence we can choose a point $z$ not in our sequence $z_1,\cdots$. Now since $z$ isn't a cluster point of the sequence, there is some neighborhood $B(z,r)$ such that $B(z,r)\setminus \{z\}$ doesn't intersect our sequence. But $z$ doesn't either, so $B(z,r)$ doesn't intersect the sequence, as desired.