I'm reading Friedberg's linear algebra:
(1) From definition of both "linear combination" and "span": The subset of concern should be nonempty.
(2) From definition of both "linearly dependent" and "basis": The subset of concern is ... just a subset.
But why (1) put additional restriction on the subset concerned?or, maybe, why (2) didn't?
I know that since the basis of $\{0\}$ is $\{\}$, so (2) have to include all subset including the empty one.
And since that the definition of basis use the word "linearly independent", so the definition of "linearly dependent" also include all subset including the empty one.
And, to the definition of "linearly dependent": "A subset S of a vector space V is called linearly dependent if there exist a finite number of distinct vectors ..."
So this means that $0$ is not a finite number?(But I think it's finite) since $\{\}$ has no elements and it's not linearly dependent?




A subset $S$ of a vector space $V$ over a field $\mathbb{F}$ is called linearly dependent if there are vectors $v_1,\dots,v_n$ and scalars $a_1,\dots,a_n$ such that $$ \sum_{k=1}^n a_k v_k = 0. $$ As such, all linearly dependent sets must be nonempty.
On the other hand, if $v$ is any nonzero vector, and $a$ is any nonzero scalar, then $av$ is nonzero. Consequently, the only possible basis for $\{ 0\}$ is itself — but this set is clearly linearly dependent since $1\cdot 0 = 0$. If every vector space is to have a basis, we are left with no other choice but to define $\text{span}(\emptyset) =\{ 0 \}$ (note that the empty-set is vacuously linearly independent).