Maybe the answer is obvious. I'm sorry for this
I know for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ that
$$ \lim_\limits{n \to \infty}\left(1 + \frac{x}{n} \right)^{n} = \exp(x). $$
Now suppose I have a sequence $\{x_{n}\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ such that
$$ \lim_\limits{n \to \infty} x_{n} = x \in \mathbb{R}. $$
Can I also conclude that
$$ \lim_\limits{n \to \infty}\left(1 + \frac{x_{n}}{n} \right)^{n} = \exp(x)? $$
We have that $\forall \epsilon>0$ eventually
$$\left(1 + \frac{x-\epsilon}{n} \right)^{n}\le \left(1 + \frac{x_{n}}{n} \right)^{n}\le \left(1 + \frac{x+\epsilon}{n} \right)^{n}$$
and therefore by squeeze theorem
$$e^{x-\epsilon} \le \liminf_{n \to \infty}\left(1 + \frac{x_{n}}{n} \right)^{n}\le \limsup_{n \to \infty}\left(1 + \frac{x_{n}}{n} \right)^{n}\le e^{x+\epsilon} $$
and taking $\epsilon \to 0$ the result follows.