I've been working on the following exercise: Let $f: \mathbb {R} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be differentiable. Suppose, there is an $a \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $$f'(x)=a \cdot f(x) ~~~~(*)$$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
Show that $f(x)=e^{ax} f(0)$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$. (HINT: Multiply $(*)$ by $e^{-ax}$ und use the product rule.)
My problems: Of course, I see that this $f$ above fulfills condition $(*)$. However, I'm not able to show that it can only be a function of this type. My major problem is that I do not understand how I am supposed to apply this given hint. Another idea was to maybe work with the defintion of the differential quotient...
Thank you for your help!
Following the hint you have $$ f'(x) e^{-ax} - a f(x) e^{-ax} = 0 $$ for all $x \in \Bbb R$. According to the product rule, the left-hand side is the derivative of the function $$ f(x) e^{-ax} $$ which therefore must be constant, i.e. $f(x) e^{-ax} = f(0)$.