I am interested in the following question:
Assume $f,g: [0,+\infty)\to\mathbf R$ are both uniformly continuous, and $g(x)\to 0$ as $x\to+\infty$. Can this guarantee that $h(x)\equiv f(x)g(x)$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,+\infty)$?
Any hint is highly appreciated!
This question does not need an "answer" since the example given by @RyszardSzwarc completes the assignment most elegantly.
But that never stops anyone with a particularly strong pedantic inclination. I learned from L.C. Young who was a professor at Madison and the son of a pair of famous British mathematicians of something he called "lemon squeezing" in one of his memoirs.
Given a problem or a theorem, a mathematician is expected to gnaw and chew at it like a dog on an old bone. Or, to use his much better metaphor, squeeze it for just a wee bit more, similar in the way one can always get just one more drop of lemon juice from a lemon if you try a bit harder.
So we know that the product of two uniformly continuous functions on a compact interval $[a,b]$ must be uniformly continuous, but that the product of such functions on the unbounded interval $[0,\infty)$ need not be. Even if one of the pair has a zero limit at $\infty$. End of assignment. Time for a beer.
Or, maybe, squeeze that lemon. If you wish to transition from a student to a research mathematician then you really must always get used to doing that lemon squeezing...along with the beer if you must.
For Problem I you might wish to consult this reference: