We know that, the function $f: \mathbb{R}→ \mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x) = x$ is uniformly continuous on $\mathbb{R}$.
Now, my Question is, if we define the function $g:\mathbb{Q} →\mathbb{R}$ such that $f(x) = x$ for all $x ∈ Q$ then is function $g$ is uniformly continuous on $\mathbb{Q}$?
My attempt: as we know, continuity is domain based property. So to check continuity of $g$, we must consider the point of domain first!!. Now let $q ∈\mathbb{Q}$ then as we know, rationals are dense in $\mathbb{R}$ so, $q$ must be limit point of domain and not an isolated point of domain. So $g$ is continuous at $q$ if and only if, $$\lim_{x\to q} g(x) = g(q)$$ But is $$\lim_{x\to q+} g(x)=\lim_{x\to q-} g(x)$$? (I stuck here)
As between two rationals there is an irrational number and function is not defined their. So is left hand limit and right hand limit of $g$ as $x$ tends to $q$ are equal? Is $g$ is continuous at $q$ ? and what about uniform continuity? Please help me.
If you have something like for all $x,y\in{\bf{R}}$, if $|x-y|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-f(y)|<\epsilon$.
Then, of course, for all $x,y\in S$, if $|x-y|<\delta$, then $|f(x)-f(y)|<\epsilon$, (or put it in this way: $|g(x)-g(y)|<\epsilon$.)
Here $S$ is any subset of ${\bf{R}}$.