The question here might be standard in some textbook. Let $a_n, n\ge1$ be a series of real numbers. It is evident that
- if $\displaystyle \sum_{n\ge 1} |a_n|<+\infty$, then $\displaystyle \sum_{n\ge1} e^{2n\pi i t}a_n$ converges for all $0\le t< 1$.
What about the converse implication? That is,
- Assume $\displaystyle \sum_{n\ge1} e^{2n\pi i t}a_n$ converges for all $0\le t< 1$. Does this imply $\displaystyle \sum_{n\ge 1} |a_n|<+\infty$?
Here is my thought according to MPW's viewpoint as a power/Fourier series.
(a). $\displaystyle \sum_{n\ge1} e^{2n\pi i t}a_n$ converges for all $0\le t< 1$.
Condition (a) implies that we have a well defined function, say $f(t)$.
(b). $\displaystyle \sum_{n\ge 1} |a_n|<+\infty$.
Condition (b) implies that the series in (a) converges to $f$ absolutely and uniformly.
According to Wikipedia, there exists some function, whose "Fourier series converges pointwise, but not uniformly; see Antoni Zygmund, Trigonometric Series, vol. 1, Chapter 8, Theorem 1.13, p. 300." This should be a theoretically counterexample.