I'm trying to figure out if the following is true or false:
Let $\mu$ and $\nu$ be finite measures on Borel subsets of $[0,1]$,and $\nu \ll \mu$ ($\nu$ is absolutely cts with respect to $\mu$). Does there exist always a $C \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $\forall A \subseteq [0,1]$ that is Borel, we have $\nu(A)$ $\lt$ $C \mu (A)$.
The Radon-Nykodym theorem seems to almost suggest that is true, if I knew it was bounded, then I could say $\nu (A) \le \int_{A} g \ d\mu \le \int_{A} C \ d\mu \le C\mu (A)$, where $C$ is the bound. However, I don't know if it is bounded and in fact, I could take an unbounded function that is still integrable on $[0,1]$, such as $\frac{1}{\sqrt x}$.
I can't even be sure if it is true or false.
Thank you!
Your example is fine. Let $\mu$ be Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ and $\nu (E)=\int_E \frac 1 {\sqrt x} dx$. Then $\mu <<\mu$ and there is no $C$ such that $\nu(E) \leq C\mu (E)$. This can be seen by taking $E=(0,r)$ with $r$ sufficiently small.