Intuitively I get in arithmetic aka the natural numbers that:
$\exists n\,\exists m\,(m < n \wedge P(m)) \Leftrightarrow \exists k\,P(k)$
But I am having problems finding a formal proof.
What I tried so far, is using $P(j) \Leftrightarrow \neg Q(j)$, and then this is the same as $\forall n\,\forall m (m < n \Rightarrow Q(m)) \Leftrightarrow \forall k\,Q(k)$. The $\Leftarrow$ direction looks like specialization, weakening and generalization. The $\Rightarrow$ direction could work with changing the quantifier order and then using a specialization.
A proof which I just verified in Agda so is pretty much as formal as they come:
The forward direction is trivial: take $k = m$.
The backward direction: take $m = k$ and $n = k+1$.
That's really all there is to it.
Preamble to set up the appropriate definitions of equality, $+$, $<$ and so on:
The actual proof: