Abuse of notation in Group Theory: what is $a^{-n}$?

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Let $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and $a$ be an element of a group $(G,*)$. Then, as far as I understand, $a^n$ is a shorthand notation for $a*...*a$ ($n$ times).

Similarly, $(a^{-1})^n$ is a shorthand notation for $(a^{-1})*...*(a^{-1})$ ($n$ times).

It gets a bit tricky for me when I see $a^{-n}$ (again $n\in\mathbb{N}$)

Because $a*...*a$ ($-n$ times) makes no sense, I take it that $a^{-n}$ is the same as saying $(a^{-1})*...*(a^{-1})$ ($n$ times). This is consistent with $a^{-n}=(a^{-1})^n$.

Please let me know whether my understanding is right or wrong.

My motivation behind seeking the above clarification:

Let $G=\langle a \rangle$ be an infinite cyclic group generated by $a$. Then by definition, any element $g$ in $G$ can be written as $a^m$ for some $m\in\mathbb{Z}$. Then one of the following is true:

  • $g=a*...*a$ ($m$ times) if $m$ is positive
  • $g=(a^{-1})*...*(a^{-1})$ ($|m|$ times) if $m$ is negative

Let us ignore the case where $m=0$ as there is no confusion there.

Now from my classification above, can I say that any element of $G$ is a product of finite number of $a$'s OR a product of finite number of $a^{-1}$s. What I find awkward is that even in the latter case, we say the element is generated by $a$ although in some sense that element is generated by $a^{-1}$.

Someone please help me discard my awkwardness : )

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remember that since $G=gp(a)$ is a group then $a^{-1}\in G$.

Thus: $a^{-1}...a^{-1}$ $n$ times is $a^{-n}$

0
On

The thing to keep in mind here is that the group operations of taking inverses commutes with rising to a power: $(a^n)^{-1} = (a^{-1})^n$. To see this you can multiply both sides of the equation by $a^n$. Therefore, we can call both operations $a^{-n}$.