Let $S^m$ be the $m$-sphere and $$F(S^m,2)/\mathbb{Z}_2=\{(a,b)\mid a,b\in S^m, a\neq b\}/(a,b)\sim (b,a)$$ be the $2$-nd unordered configuration space on $S^m$. Why $F(S^m,2)/\mathbb{Z}_2$ is homotopy equivalent to $\mathbb{R}P^m$?
Note that $F(S^m,2)/\mathbb{Z}_2$ is obtained by the action of $\mathbb{Z}_2$ on $F(S^m,2)$ by permuting coordinates $(a,b)\to (b,a)$. But $\mathbb{R}P^m$ is obtained by the action of $\mathbb{Z}_2$ on $S^m$ by the antipodal map. Although $F(S^m,2)\cong TS^m \simeq S^m$, the actions of $\mathbb{Z}_2$ are different.
Added Question: Is $F(S^m,2)/\mathbb{Z}_2$ homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}P^m\times \mathbb{R}^m$?
Observe that:
$F(S^m,2)/\mathbb{Z}_2$ is the space of all unordered pairs of points on $S^m$.
$\mathbb{R}P^m$ is the space of all unordered pairs of antipodal points on $S^m$.
The first space deformation retracts onto the second. Specifically, given an unordered pair $\{a,b\}$ of points on $S^m$ that are not antipodal, let $C$ be the great circle containing them. Then we can move $a$ and $b$ directly away from each other along $C$ until they are antipodal, which defines the required deformation retraction.