I have a problem with rather simple example:
$$\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n+1}\frac{10^n}{n!}$$
I have to tell if it's convergent. I know it is, but I don't know how to prove it. I was thinking of Leibniz's test, but this sequence doesn't decrease monotonically.
Thank you in advance.
We have that, by induction, for $n$ sufficiently large (base case $n=10$) and assuming (induction step)
$$\frac{10^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}<\frac{10^n}{n!}$$
we have
$$\frac{10^{n+2}}{(n+2)!}=\frac{10}{n+2}\frac{10^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}<\frac{10}{n+2}\frac{10^n}{n!}<\frac{10^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}$$
therefore $a_n\to 0$ is strictly decreasing and we can refer to alternating series test.