I'm trying to decide if these series converge or diverge:
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n \left(\frac{2n + 100 }{3n + 1 }\right)^n $$ Here $\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\frac{2n + 100 }{3n + 1 }\right)^n \ne 0$, so can we conclude that the series diverges?
$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \log \left( n \sin \frac{1}{n} \right) $$ Can we compare this series with the divergent series $ \sum \log \sin(1/n)$ to conclude that it is divergent too?
Am I reaching the correct conclusion in each case?
Hints:
For the first series, use to root test to prove the series converges. $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\sqrt[\large n]{\left|(-1)^n \left(\frac{2n + 100}{3n + 1}\right)^n\right|}=\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(\frac{2n + 100 }{3n + 1 }\right) = \frac23 < 1$$
Hence, $$\sum_{n = 1}^\infty (-1)^n \left(\frac{2n + 100}{3n + 1}\right)^n\;\;\text{converges}$$
For the second series, use the comparison text to prove the series converges, too.
Clarification:
We know by the Taylor series expansion that $$\sin\left(\frac 1 n\right)=\frac 1 n +O\left(\frac{1}{n^3}\right).$$
It follows, then, that $$\log\left(n\sin\left(\frac1 n\right)\right)=\log\left(n \left(\frac 1n + O\left(\frac 1{n^3}\right)\right)\right) = 1 + O \left(\frac 1{n^2}\right) = O\left(\frac 1{n^2}\right)$$ So the series is convergent by comparison to $\sum \dfrac 1{n^2}$