I am getting stuck on this question: If a, b, and c, are nonzero numbers such that $\frac{a+b-c}{c}$=$\frac{a-b+c}{b}$=$\frac{-a+b+c}{a}$ and x=$\frac{(a+b)(b+c)(c+a)}{abc}$ and x<0, then x=?
What I have done so far: Consider, if $\frac{a}{b}$=$\frac{c}{d}$, and (b+d) is non-zero, then $\frac{a+c}{b+d}$=$\frac{a}{b}$=$\frac{c}{d}$. So with that fact, I did... $\frac{a+b-c}{c}$=$\frac{a-b+c}{b}$ $\implies$ $\frac{2a}{c+b}$ and $\frac{2a}{c+b}$=$\frac{-a+b+c}{a}$$\implies$ $\frac{(a+b+c)}{a+b+c}$ = 1. Then I took the original equations and did $\frac{a+b-c}{c}$=1, so $a+b=2c$ , and similarly, $(a+c)=2b$ and $b+c=2a$. So plugging that into x=$\frac{(a+b)(b+c)(c+a)}{abc}$ we have $x=\frac{(2a)(2b)(2c)}{abc}$, which is $x=\frac{8(abc)}{abc}=8$. This is wrong though, because it says in the problem x<0. So how do I do this?
$$\frac{a+b-c}{c}=\frac{a-b+c}{b}$$ $$ab+b^2-bc=ac-bc+c^2\implies a(b-c)=(b+c)(c-b)$$ $$\implies b=c \quad OR\quad a+b+c=0$$ If we take $b=c$, $$\frac{a}{c}=\frac{-a+2c}{a}\quad using (1)and (3).$$ $$\implies ({\frac{a}{c}})^2=1\quad OR\quad -2$$ Obviosuly $-2$ isn't possible, $a=c$ will give $x=1$ and $a=-c$ will give $x=0$.
So, $a+b+c=0\implies a=-(b+c), b=-(a+c), c=-(a+b)\implies x=-1.$