An element of $[0,1]$ is in the cantor set iff it can be written in ternary form (base $3$) $(0.a_1 a_2 ... a_n ...)$ with $a_n \neq 1$, for all $n \in \Bbb N$.
How is this possible? The book I'm reading says it should be obvious and does not provide any proof. If $(0.a_1 a_2 ... a_n ...) = (0.1)$ in base $3$, then in base $10$ it's $\frac{1}{3}$, which is an element of the cantor set, which seems to be a contradiction.
But $\frac 13$ can also be written in ternary as $0.02222222\ldots$, which does not have a $1$ anywhere.
The standard "middle third" construction of the Cantor set may be interpreted the following way: Iteration $n$ removes, from the remaining set, all numbers that in the $n$-th place of any of its ternary expansions must have a $1$ (remember that numbers that has a terminating ternary representation also has a ternary representation ending in repeated $2$'s). Thus, the ones that are left are the ones that may be written using only $0$ and $2$.
So, for instance, in the first iteration, $0.1$ is not removed because it may be written as $0.022222\ldots$, and $0.1222222\ldots$ is not removed because it may be written as $0.2$. Any number between those two, however, must have a $1$ in its $a_1$-place, and is therefore removed.