Assuming $ d, r, f,c> 0 $, I am wondering how one could get the below integral analytically:
$$\int_0^{\infty} \exp(-d \: b^2) \frac{-b \: c \:\cos(b\: c) + (1 + b^2 f)\sin(b\: c)}{b + b^3 r^2} \,\mathrm{d}b$$
I used Mathematica to get this integral, but it could not take the integral.