Prove or disprove:
There is a sequence $x$ with each $x_i\in\{1,2,3,4\}$ so that $\pi$ can be written as the average $$\pi = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{x_i}{n}$$
I am sure that this question would be trivial using advanced number theory concepts, but I would like a solution using just high-school olympiad level mathematics.
Thanks a lot. ☺
You could define the sequence recursively in terms of the average of the previous terms of the sequence:
$$x_k = \begin{cases} 3 & \text{ if } & a_{k-1} > \pi \\ 4 & \text{ if } & a_{k-1} < \pi \\ \end{cases}$$
where
$$a_n = \frac {1}{n}\sum_k^n x_k$$
The convergence of $|a_n - \pi| \to 0$ follows from
$$- \frac{\pi - 3}{n} < a_n - \pi < \frac{4 - \pi}n$$
when $(x_{n-1}, x_n)$ is $(3, 4)$ or $(4, 3)$. Also, $|a_n - \pi|$ is decreasing in the other cases.
In the $(3, 4)$ case, $a_{n-1} < \pi$ so $$\begin{array} {rcl} a_n &=& (a_{n-1}\cdot(n-1) + 4)/n \\ &<& (\pi \cdot (n-1) + 4)/n \\ &=& \pi + (4 - \pi)/n \end{array}$$
Similarly for the $(4, 3)$ case.
To be pedantically rigorous, it would also need to pointed out that there is no final time $a_n - \pi$ changes signs.