Thanks in advance.
I'm struggling with some statement in a paper. It claims as follows,
For a p.s.d. operator $H:\mathbb{R}^d\to\mathbb{R}^d$ with an inverse and some $v\in\mathbb{R}^d$, such that
$v^{T}Hv\le\gamma$
for some constant $\gamma > 0$,
then $vv^T\preceq \gamma{H^{-1}}$
I cannot see it is obvious. Please help.
For any $x\in\mathbb{R}^d$, we have the following
$x'vv'x=v'xx'v=v'H^{1/2}H^{-1/2}xx'H^{-1/2}H^{1/2}v$
$\le trace(H^{-1/2}xx'H^{-1/2})v'Hv=x'H^{-1}x*v'Hv\le\gamma x'H^{-1}x$
The conclusion follows by the arbitrariness of $x$.