I've been working on a proof and I'm really trying to get the hang of writing rigorous proofs on my own. Therefore, even if intuitively I understand the statement, I feel like I can't find a simple and concise way to write it. So, I was wondering if someone could maybe give me pointers about where to start, maybe a trick or something or a point I'm missing without proving it for me.
So here is what I got so far:
Question:
Prove that if $A,B\subset \mathbb{R}$ are two bounded sets $ (A,B \neq \emptyset)$, then $\sup(A\cap B) \leq \min\{\sup A, \sup B\}$
Proof
Suppose $A$ and $B$ are two nonempty bounded subsets of $\mathbb{R}$
Then by definition of bounded set we have that
\begin{aligned}& \text{(i) }\exists \alpha \in \mathbb{R} : \forall a \in A, a \leq \alpha \\& \text{(ii) if }M \in \mathbb{R}\text{ is an upperbound of }A, \text{ then } M\geq \alpha \end{aligned}
and
\begin{aligned}&\text{(i) }\exists \beta \in \mathbb{R} : \forall b \in B, b \leq \beta \\& \text{(ii) if }N \in \mathbb{R}\text{ is an upperbound of }B, \text{ then } N \geq \beta \end{aligned}
and therefore
$$\exists \sup(A)\in \mathbb{R}, \sup(B) \in \mathbb{R}\\ \\ \\$$
Case 1:
If $A\cap B = \emptyset$ then, $\sup(A\cap B) = -\infty$ and since
$$\exists \sup(A)\in \mathbb{R}, \sup(B) \in \mathbb{R}\\ \\ \\$$
we have that
$\sup(A\cap B) = -\infty < x, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}$ and in particular,
$\sup(A\cap B) = -\infty < min(\sup A, \sup B)\\$
Case 2
Suppose $A\cap B \neq \emptyset$, then,
Since, $A \cap B := \left \{ x\in \mathbb{R} : x \in A \text{ and } x\in B \right \}$, then
$A\cap B \subset \mathbb{R}$
Moreover, since $\mathbb{R}$ has an order structure "<", we have that
(1) $\forall x \in A \cap \ B, x \leq a \leq b$ or $ x \leq b \leq a, \forall a \in A, \forall b \in B$
here I'm not so sure about this argument, is it enough with the definition of the set or do I need to explain more?
we have to show that in any cases, min(sup A, sup B) is an upperbound of $A \cap B$ which means that $sup(A \cap B)$ will have to be at least equal to the min of the supremums. By the thricotomy axiom, only one of those three cases are possible for any $x\in \mathbb{R}$
- if $sup A = sup B$, then by (1) and the definition of supremum: $\forall x \in A \cap B, x \leq sup A = sup B = min(sup A, sup B)$
- if $sup A < sub B$, then then by (1) and the definition of supremum: $\forall x \in A \cap B, x \leq sup A = min sup(A\cap B) $
- if $sup A > sub B$, then then by (1) and the definition of supremum: $\forall x \in A \cap B, x \leq sup B = min sup(A\cap B) \text{ }\square$
So, here is what I came with. I feel like my argument is more confusing than anything.
Plus, I'm not even sure if everything I say is true.
So, if someone could, without giving me the awnser, point out some flaws, tips, or directions, it would be very much appreciated.
Thank you!
These sorts of proofs about sups and infs are generally pretty brief if you look at them the right way -- no need to argue by cases.
Hint: Show that if $X$ and $Y$ are sets with $X\subset Y$, then $\sup X\le \sup Y$ (You may already know this.) Now apply this hint twice. If you need another hint , spoiler below: