From an analytic point of view, we can express the function $f(x)$ using Taylor Series, with an initial point $x_n$:
$$ \begin{array}{lcl} f(x) & = & f(x_n + (x-x_n)) \\ & = & f(x_n) + (x - x_n)f'(x_n) + \frac{(x-x_n)^2}{2}f''(x_n) + \ldots \end{array} $$
and after breaking off to the first order,
$$\hat f(x) = f(x_n) + (x-x_n)f'(x_n)$$
we find the zero of the function, and the solution of the problem: $$\hat f(x) = 0 \iff x = x_n - \frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$$
it is an approximation of the solution of the starting problem $f(x) = 0$, and it will be refined applying again the same procedure.
Here I don't understand three things:
- Why consider as initial point $x_n$, and not $x_0$ instead?
- Why $f(x) = f(x_n + (x-x_n))$ ?
For this point, I have thought this: if $x$ is the next solution, and $x_n$ is the current estimation, the distance between them is $x-x_n$. Therefore to arrive to the next solution, I have to addition the missing distance: $x_n + (x-x_n)$. But I don't think it is the correct reasoning. - Why to break off to the first order?
Please, can you give me any suggestion? Many thanks!
$x_0$ is a rather crude guess at the root. Hopefully, $x_n$ is much closer to the root, so the Taylor expansion around it is a much better approximation to the function near the root.
$x = x_n + (x - x_n)$.
You could use a second-order approximation: then you have Halley's method.