I'm looking for an easy way to prove this identity
$$\sum_{j=0}^{n}{(-1)^j j (n-j) {n \choose j}} = 0$$ for $n > 2$.
I know this can be proven by differentiating $(1+x)^n = \sum x^j{n \choose j}$ twice, taking a linear combination and substituting $x=-1$, but I want something different, hopefully more elegant.
To avoid differentiation, you may observe that $$ (n-j)j{n\choose j} = n(n-1) {n-2\choose j-1},\quad n>2,\,j\geq1,\tag 1 $$ then, by the binomial theorem you just have, for $n >2$, $$ \begin{align} \sum_{j=0}^n(-1)^j(n-j)j{n\choose j} &=\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}(-1)^j(n-j)j{n\choose j}\\\\&=-n(n-1)\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}(-1)^{j-1}{n-2\choose{j-1}}\\\\ &=-n(n-1)\sum_{j=0}^{n-2}(-1)^j{n-2\choose{j}}\\\\ &=-n(n-1)(1-1)^{n-2} \\\\ & =0.\tag 2 \end{align} $$