another infinite product problem

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Is there a way to simplify the following $$ 1-\prod_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(k+a)^2-1}{(k+a)^2+b^2} $$ to a single infinite product? Assumptions: $a>0$, $b>0$.

Can the following idea prove useful? $$ \prod_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(k+a)^2-1}{(k+a)^2+b^2}=\prod_{k=0}^\infty\left(1-\frac{b^2+1}{(k+a)^2+b^2}\right). $$

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